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« Matt Coles on the Perry decision: Can it be limited to California? | Main | Bill Eskridge on Perry and the constitutional politics of marriage »

February 21, 2012

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daftpunkydavid

i was wondering whether it would make sense for prop 8 challengers to also appeal the court of appeals' ruling that the prop 8 backers had standing to intervene.

indeed, in both circumstances, isn't the result the same? i mean: (1) in this decision, the ruling only applies to california and restores marriage; doesn't address level of scrutiny, etc. (2) if there is no federal standing to appeal, then, again, the end result is the same: marriage restored, standard of review not really addressed.

(the only difference of import that i see is that the district court's ruling (walker's) actually addresses the question/the merits of the right to marry, whereas the appeals court expressly refuses to go there, and instead, addresses whether withdrawing a right in this case was unconstitutional).

thanks!

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